Monday, December 10, 2012

Real Time Systems - Part 2

Multiple choice questions and answers
Hope the answers(bold) are correct. If any of the answer is wrong, please comment. I will check and update.

 26. A job is preemptable if it must be executed from start to completion without interruption
a. True
b. False

27. Effective deadline ___________
a. Of a job without a successor is equal to its given deadline
b. Of a job without a predecessor is equal to its given deadline
c. Of a job without a successor is equal to its given release time
d. None of the above

28. If execution time of three periodic tasks is 1, 1 and 3 and their periods are 3, 4 and 10 respectively, then their utilizations are
a. .33, .25 and .3
b. .36, .25 and .4
c. .25, .33 and .3
d. None of the above

29. A validation algorithm is ____________ when it is overly pessimistic and declares tasks unable to meet their timing constraints except when system resources are unduly underutilized.
a. Accurate
b. Inaccurate
c. Accepted
d. None of the above

30. Which is not the real time system?
a. A system that must satisfy explicit response time constraint or risk severe consequences, including failure
b. A system that can not satisfy one or more of the requirements stipulated in the formal system specification
c. A system is one whole logical correctness is based on both the correctness of the outputs and their timeline
d. None of the above

31. Which feature of OOPs help the reuse of code
a. Inheritance
b. Class
c. Object
d. None of the above

32. SRD is
a. Software requirements definition
b. Structured requirements definition
c. Software requirements diagram
d. Structured requirements diagram

33. Memory reference instruction is an instruction that communicate with virtual memory, writing to it or reading from it
a. True
b. False

34. Who does unit testing?
a. Testers
b. Customer
c. End users
d. Developers

35. Capability maturity model is a software life cycle model
a. True
b. False

36. Flow chart algorithm can be used for
a. Unit testing
b. Black box testing
c. White box testing
d. None of the above

37. __________ include interrupts that occur at both fixed rates and sporadically
a. Hybrid system
b. Preemptive system
c. Open system
d. None of above

38. In which model, the second phase will be started only when defined set of goals is achieved in first phase
a. The waterfall model
b. Prototyping model
c. The evolutionary model
d. The spiral model

39. Encapsulation in OPP, encapsulate the
a. Data only
b. Behavior only
c. a and b
d. None of the above

40. Register that holds the address of the memory location
a. MAR
b. MDR
c. LRU
d. None of the above

41. Which model is oldest in software development
a. The waterfall model
b. Prototyping model
c. The evolutionary model
d. The spiral model

42. _______ is the process of saving and restoring sufficient information for a real time task so that it can be resumed after interrupt.
a. Hardware interrupt
b. Software interrupt
c. Context switching
d. None of the above

43. SRS is
a. Software requirement specification
b. Software requirement solution
c. System requirement specification
d. None of the above

44. Run time stack cannot be used in a round robin system because of the first in, first out nature of the scheduling.
a. True
b. False

45. Risk management is the most important feature of
a. The waterfall model
b. Prototyping model
c. Agile model
d. The spiral model

46. The memory which does not rely on a capacitive charge to store binary data
a. Static
b. Dynamic
c. a and b
d. None of the above

47. Which model is mostly used in these days for software development
a. The waterfall model
b. Prototyping model
c. Agile model
d. The spiral model

48. Which SDLC model starts testing activities with development activities
a. The waterfall model
b. Spiral model
c. V model
d. Linear model

49. Unit testing is a
a. Stress testing
b. Black box testing
c. Regression testing
d. None of the above

50. Critical section is most important layer of OS
a. True
b. False

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Real Time Systems - Part 1

Multiple choice questions and answers
Hope the answers(bold) are correct. If any of the answer is wrong, please comment. I will check and update.

 1. Response time
a. The length of time from the release time of the job to the time instant when it completes
b. The instant in time when a job becomes available for execution
c. a and b
d. None of the above.

2. Clock driven scheduling applicable to deterministic systems
a. True
b. False

3. Which is soft real time system
a. Embedded navigation controller for autonomous robot weed killer
b. Avionics weapons delivery system in which pressing a button launches an air-to-air missile
c. ATM
d. None of the above

4. Most scheduling algorithm used in non-real time systems are event driven
a. True
b. False

5. FIFO algorithms assign priorities to jobs according to
a. Job execution time
b. Their release time
c. Ideal time
d. None of the above.

6. The release time of sporadic and aperiodic jobs are random variables.
a. True
b. False

7. Which are examples of embedded system
a. Television
b. Modern automobile
c. Washing machine
d. All of the above

8. For developing real time system we can use
a. Real time OS
b. Real time network
c. Synchronous programming language
d. All of the above

9. The lateness of a job is the difference between its completion time and its deadline
a. True
b. False

10. __________ algorithm allows us to determine whether all jobs in a system indeed meet their timing constraint despite scheduling anomalies
a. Preemptive
b. Emptive
c. LST
d. Validation

11. If an aperiodic job is ready and the slack is > 0 then the scheduler will not allow to execute aperiodic job.
a. True
b. False

12. ______________ systems are those in which scheduling is driven by ongoing interaction with their environment
a. Embedded
b. Reactive
c. a and b
d. None of the above

13. _________ is a set of related jobs which jointly provide some function
a. A task
b. A schedule
c. A job
d. None of the above

14. A job with hard or soft deadline is called
a. Laxity type
b. Relative deadline
c. Preemptivity
d. None of the above

15. Real time systems are synonymous with fast system
a. True
b. False

16. Can we use FORTRAN to write real time systems
a. True
b. False

17. An algorithm that is optimal for scheduling preemptive jobs on one processor is
a. LST
b. MLF
c. a and b
d. None of the above

18. Priority driven algorithm is also known as
a. Event driven
b. Greedy scheduling
c. List scheduling
d. All of the above

19. A hard real time systems is the one which has predictable performance with no deadline miss, even in case of sporadic tasks
a. True
b. False

20. A processor, is a passive entity upon which jobs may depend
a. True
b. False

21. Video transmission is an example of soft real time system
a. True
b. False

22. When job parameters with hard deadlines are known in advance, a _______ (containing all scheduling decision times) can be constructed off line
a. Non static schedule
b. Periodic schedule
c. Static schedule
d. None of the above

23. Execution time
a. Is the instant of time by which the job must complete
b. Is the maximum allowable response time of the job
c. Is the instant of time at which the job become eligible for execution
d. The amount of time required to complete the execution of job when it executes alone and has all the resources it requires

24. Arrival time
a. Is the instant of time by which the job must complete
b. Is the maximum allowable response time of the job
c. Is the instant of time at which the job become eligible for execution
d. The amount of time required to complete the execution of job when it executes alone and has all the resources it requires

25. Anti lock brakes are example of firm real time system
a. True
b. False

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Software Architecture - Part 2


Multiple choice questions and answers
Hope the answers(bold) are correct. If any of the answer is wrong, please comment. I will check and update.
26. Intra team communication during software development is often less than inter team communication.
a. True
b. False

27. __________ are useful for documenting the different states of a system.
a. Signatures
b. State charts
c. Interfaces
d. Decision trees

28. It is NOT possible to have multiple interfaces among 2 entities.
a. True
b. False

29. Most often, an architectural documentation is likely to remain unused because
a. It is not properly compiled
b. It uses font and text size other than those pre specified
c. Programmers rely on their knowledge and experience to solve problems
d. It is not readable

30. Since the development company usually arranges for training of team members on cutting edge technologies, therefore team managers can form teams by randomly selecting the team members for a particular domain.
a. True
b. False

31. Passwords, biometric identifications and digital certificates are means for
a. Data confidentiality
b. Integrity maintenance
c. User authorization
d. User authentication

32. The technique wherein various modifications expected to occur in a system are given due consideration
a. Anticipate expected changes
b. Generalization
c. Limited possible options
d. Maintaining semantic coherence

33. Reference models, architectural patterns and reference architectures are not architectures, but they are useful for capturing elements of architecture.
a. True
b. False

34. In case of availability tactics, if one component continuously emits certain signals that are monitored by other component, then this type of tactic is called
a. Heartbeat
b. Active redundancy
c. Process monitor
d. Shadow operation

35. Process monitor, transactions and removal from service are the tactics that are categorized as
a. Fault detection
b. Fault prevention
c. Fault recovery
d. Fault avoidance

36. “Mud of structure” is one of the categories of
a. Architectural patterns
b. Design patterns
c. Idioms
d. Distributed systems

37. “Ping” is also termed as
a. Voting
b. Process monitor
c. Ripple
d. Echo

38. All architectural patterns implement several tactics. However, each tactic deals with same attributes
a. True
b. False

39. Availability of system is concerned with system failure and its associated consequences
a. True
b. False

40. Intrusion detection systems usually employ technique of comparing network traffic patterns to a database
a. True
b. False

41. The primary goal of making the software testable is to
a. Allow easier testing of software modules
b. Make the job of software tester easier
c. Skip the need for writing test cases
d. Make the client feel that the software is of high quality

42. What is NOT true about the tactics used by software architects
a. Tactics are absolute necessity for achieving software quality
b. Tactics are dependent on patterns
c. Tactics can refine other tactics
d. Tactics help achieve quality

43. The architectural pattern developed to implement the design tactic wherein the user interface is separated from the application is
a. MVC
b. Record/Playback
c. Arch/Slinky
d. All of the above

44. Reference model mapped on to software elements and data flows between them is called
a. Architectural pattern
b. Architectural model
c. Reference model
d. Reference architecture

45. If a problem with no deterministic solution strategy is encountered, then identify the pattern that can be useful for such scenario
a. Blackboard
b. Layer pattern
c. Pipes and filter pattern
d. Pipeline pattern

46. The condition that must be considered when it arrives at a system is termed as
a. Environment
b. Stimulus
c. Artifact
d. Catalyst

47. Which of the following is true about the architectural patterns?
a. Patterns help to generate software using unconventional techniques
b. Patterns express fundamental structural organization schema for software system
c. Patterns are study of architecture of a software system
d. They can override any other pattern

48. The metric that is concerned with the speed with which the system responds on getting a command is
a. Testability
b. Usability
c. Availability
d. Performance

49. The ________ organizational model assumes that each member is expected to have working knowledge of all the aspects of the product.
a. Business Units
b. Development department
c. Domain engineering units
d. Hierarchical domain engineering units

50. If the software developer wants to change the server, the necessary modifications are required to be done dispatcher component
a. True
b. False


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Software Architecture - Part 1


Multiple choice questions and answers
Hope the answers(bold) are correct. If any of the answer is wrong, please comment. I will check and update.
1. The analysis phase of ATAM (phase 1 and phase 2) comprise of _______ stages.
a. 7
b. 9
c. 2
d. 5

2. The phase 0 in which the project representatives group and the evaluators group work out the delivery of architectural documents to evaluation team, is called
a. Evaluation phase
b. Partnership & preparation
c. Follow up
d. Examination phase

3. Which of these is NOT employed for fault detection?
a. Ping
b. Exceptions
c. Checkpoint
d. Heartbeat

4. A.B.C is an acronym for
a. American Business Systems
b. Architecture for Ballistic Canons
c. Architecture Business Cycle
d. Architectural Blueprint for Computers

5. In the event of an organization NOT being in the position to forecast the needs of market with certainty, ___________ model is useful.
a. Proactive
b. Hyper-active
c. Future active
d. Reactive

6. An architectural background does not include
a. Assumptions reflected in design
b. Analysis results
c. Terminology used and corresponding description
d. Rationale for selecting or rejecting any alternative

7. The architectural drivers help in decomposing the module by satisfying the most important set of requirements
a. True
b. False

8. Hardware product lines rely on common features/parts while software products lines rely on
a. Code complexity
b. Re use of code
c. Software metrics
d. Re engineering

9. Documenting an interface also requires documenting its syntactic and semantic information
a. True
b. False

10. The “follow up” phase of ATAM has following participants
a. Evaluation team, project decision makers, stakeholders
b. Evaluation team, project decision makers
c. Evaluation team leadership and key project decision makers
d. Evaluation team and Evaluation client

11. The testers and integrators often use classes (Module View) for
a. Overview information
b. Some details
c. Detailed information
d. Anything

12. The Forward Receiver design pattern provides transparent inter process communication for peer to peer interaction model
a. True
b. False

13. In ATAM, who performs the duty of writing scenarios on whiteboard during scenario elicitation activity?
a. Timekeeper
b. Process facilitator
c. Scenario scribe
d. Process observer

14. WWW is an application of proxy design pattern
a. True
b. False

15. In the event of a new proposed product falling outside the scope of previously maintained product line, then
a. New product line should always be developed for new product
b. Product line’s scope can be expanded to include new product, if its architecture allows it
c. Some other alternative software architecture should

16. A set of software intensive systems that share common features and satisfy the needs of particular market segment is called
a. Software product line
b. Shared code
c. Common rail software
d. Common broker architecture

17. Which of the following is NOT a type of product line organizational model as identified by Jan Bosch?
a. Development Department
b. Inter-Department Units
c. Domain Engineering units
d. Business units

18. _______________ depicts the relation of system’s view with the environment
a. Element catalogue
b. Context diagram
c. Variability guide
d. Architecture background

20. Customers often don’t require the Module View of the software.
a. True
b. False

21. Which of the following about ATAM is NOT true?
a. It does not include actual system testing
b. It involves decision makers articulate a precise list of quality attribute requirements
c. It is not an evaluation of code
d. It is an evaluation of requirements

22. The __________ in ATAM is responsible for raising issues of architectural interest that other stakeholders may not have thought of
a. Evaluation leader
b. Observer
c. Questioner
d. Process encoder

23. The slave component can decide on its own as to what service it can provide to the master component.
a. True
b. False

24. Identify the type of stakeholders for whom the use of software architect is to specify the correct functional behavior
a. Managers
b. Testers
c. Designers of constituent parts
d. Product line managers

25. Attribute Driven Design method accepts quality attribute scenarios as inputs
a. True
b. False

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Technical Communication - Part 2

Multiple choice questions and answers

26. The average speaking rate is ________ words/minute
a. 125 – 150
b. 80 – 100
c. 200 – 225
d. None of the above

27. A lawyer is using the legal language to explain to his family a case he argued in a court of law would certainly be not a barrier to communication
a. True
b. False

 28. Use of dress and general physical appearance in respect of certain communication situation is part of verbal communication
a. True
b. False

29. Which are barriers to effective listening
a. Listeners knowing too much
b. Listeners knowing too little
c. a and b
d. None of the above

30. Which is not an example of barriers to communication
a. Psycho physical factors
b. Selection of a correct language
c. Premature evaluation of message
d. Different perception of reality

31. Which are elements of formal report
a. Frontispiece
b. Copyright notice
c. Preface
d. All of the above

32. The term completeness refers to accuracy or precision
a. True
b. False

33. Some of the typical reasons for which an unsolicited proposal may be rejected are the following
a. Adequate funds are not available for the execution of the proposal
b. The proposed project has low priority
c. It is not relevant to the accomplishment of immediate objectives
d. All of the above

34. The organizations which invite proposals have devised the format for their submission
a. True
b. False

35. The difference between proposal and report
a. Proposal is written before the event, report is written after the event has taken place
b. Report is written before the event, proposal is written after the event has taken place
c. Proposal is written after the event has taken place, report is written after the event has taken place
d. None of the above

36. Precision gives the unity and coherence to the report and makes it a valuable document
a. True
b. False

37. The structure of analytical report may follow
a. Inductive pattern
b. Deductive pattern
c. a and b
d. None of the above

38. Which flow of communication for interview is one way
a. Telling and listening
b. Telling
c. Problem solving
d. Listening

39. Purpose of aesthetic conclusion is to bring the discussion smoothly to a close
a. True
b. False

40. Two types of proposal are solicited and unsolicited
a. True
b. False

41. A solicit proposal is prepared in the hope that the excellence of the proposed plan would attract the interest of the potential customers and convince him that he actually needs the service.
a. True
b. False

42. Which is not the front matter in case of the reports
a. Cover
b. Title page
c. Description
d. Acknowledgement

43. Factors responsible for failure of an interview
a. Equivocation and apathy
b. Technical analytical skills
c. Arrogance and creativity
d. a and b

44. Which is not the main body of report
a. Description
b. Discussion
c. Recommendation
d. Appendix

45. The proposal section follows the following sequence
a. Summary, Technical Section, Management Section, Cost estimate
b. Technical Section, Management Section, Summary, Cost estimate
c. Technical Section, Management Section, Cost estimate, Summary,
d. Summary, Cost estimate, Technical Section, Management Section

46. An analytic report is also known as
a. Interpretative report
b. Investigative report
c. a and b
b. None of the above

47. If you have used or quoted in your report matter from any published source, you should give credit to the authors concerned by citing them in the text and listing them at the end of your report. This list is known as
a. Appendix
b. Reference
c. Recommendation
d. None of the above

48. A deductive ordering proceeds from the unknown to the known
a. True
b. False

49. What are major categories in which job interviews can be classified
a. Telephonic, on campus, video conference
b. Counseling, evaluation, disciplinary, media
c. Exit, termination, campus, persuasive
d. None of the above

50. Factor of persuasion is the factor which can convert a proposal into a project or contract
a. True
b. False

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