Data Warehosuing Answers - Part 2

26. d
27. d
28. a
29. a
30. c
31. d
32. a
33. d
34. a
35. c
36. b
37. d
38. d
39. b
40. d
41. d
42. a
43. d
44. a
45. a
46. a
47. d
48. c
49. a
50. c

Data Warehousing Answers - Part 1

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. a
5. c
6. a
7. b
8. a
9. c
10. d
11. a
12. d
13. b
14. a
15. c
16. a
17. b
18. a
19. d
20. d
21. b
22. b
23. a
24. c
25. d

Data Warehousing Questions - Part 2

26. Which of the following is NOT found in an ER Model?
a. A definition for each entity and data element
b. ER diagram
c. Entity and data element names
d. Fact and dimension tables

27. Which one is not true in context with informational system?
a. Smaller number of users
b. Access frequency is medium to low
c. Complex queries
d. Access type is read, update and delete

28. Consolidated data mart is
a. Second level data mart
b. First level data mart
c. All of these
d. None of the above

29. Which one is not the type of metadata in data warehouse?
a. Sequential metadata
b. Extraction and transformation metadata
c. End user metadata
d. Operational metadata

30. ___________ gives total view of an organization
a. OLAP
b. OLTP
c. Data warehouse
d. Database

31. Which of the following is the first step towards physical design process of data warehouse?
a. Complete physical model
b. Preparing indexing strategy
c. Determine data partitioning
d. Develop standards

32. Data warehouses performances highly dependent on proper indexing strategy
a. True
b. False

33. Which of the following is not a user of metadata?
a. IT professionals
b. Power users
c. Casual users
d. Sales person

34. Web based information delivery expands the data warehouse usage and open up new information strategies.
a. True
b. False

35. Types of metadata
a. Technical metadata
b. Business metadata
c. All of above
d. None of above

36. What is the primary responsibility of the project sponsor during data warehouse project?
a. To manage the day to day project activity
b. To approve and monitor the project budget
c. To ensure cooperation and support from all involved departments
d. To communicate project status to higher management and the board of directors

37. Web content can be used to enrich a data warehouse by
a. Add more descriptive attributes to the business dimensions
b. Create a new dimension table
c. Create a new fact table
d. All of above.

38. Which of the following is not an example of business metadata?
a. Connectivity procedures
b. Security and access privileges
c. The overall structure of data in business terms
d. Data aggregation rules

39. OLAP stands for
a. Online Application Processing
b. Online Analytical Processing
c. Online Application Protocol
d. Optical Light Analysis Protocol

40. Which of the following is not a web OLAP approach?
a. Browser plug-ins
b. Pre created HTML documents
c. OLAP in the server
d. Database

41. Back end processes involves
a. Data extraction
b. Preliminary data cleansing
c. Data warehouse structure definition
d. All of above

42. Partitioning means deliberate splitting of a table and its index data into manageable parts
a. True
b. False

43. Which one of the following is not an OLAP operation?
a. Roll up
b. Drill down
c. Drill access
d. Roll down

44. Metadata is a critical need for using, building and administering the data warehouse
a. True
b. False

45. Hypercube, a representation that accommodates more than 3 dimensions
a. True
b. False

46. A web enabled data warehouse uses the web for information delivery
a. True
b. False

47. Which of the following is not a definition of metadata?
a. Data about data
b. Data warehouse roadmap
c. Data warehouse atlas
d. Data about knowledge

48. Metadata is like a _______________
a. Knowledge center
b. Brain centre
c. Nerve centre
d. Data centre

49. OLAP supports multi dimensional analysis
a. True
b. False

50. MOLAP stands for
a. Model Online Analytical Processing
b. Multiple Online Analytical Processing
c. Multidimensional Online Analytical Processing
d. Model Online Analysis Processing

Data Warehousing Questions - Part1

1. Date warehousing refers to
a. Storing data offline at a separate site.
b. Backing up data regularly
c. Data mining
d. Uses tapes as opposed to disk

2. When you ___________ the data, you are aggregating the data to higher level.
a. Drill down
b. Drill up
c. Wrap up
d. Roll up

3. State whether true or false: The entity relationship modeling technique is not suitable for data warehouses, the dimensional modeling technique is appropriate
a. True
b. False

4. A single database couldn’t server both operational high performance transaction processing and DSS, analytical processing, all at the same time
a. True
b. False

5. Which is not feature of fact table?
a. Few attributes
b. Large number of records
c. Dense data
d. Concatenated fact table key

6. In operational system numbers of users are large
a. True
b. False

7. Which one is not the component of data warehouse?
a. Source data
b. External data
c. Data storage
d. Data staging

8. Which of the following operation differentiates HOLAP architecture from ROLAP and MOLAP architectures.
a. Drill across
b. Drill through
c. Drill down
d. Roll up

9. Which one is the key component of data warehouse architecture?
a. Data retrieval
b. Information retrieval
c. Read only data
d. Information delivery

10. Which is not the feature of dimension table?
a. Dimension table key
b. Attributes
c. Ability to drill down
d. Normalized data

11. Data warehouse is a
a. Computing environment
b. A software tool
c. A hardware product
d. All the above

12. Cube is a ________ entity containing values of a certain fact at a certain aggregation level at an intersection of a combination of dimensions.
a. Logical
b. Physical
c. Analytical
d. None of these

13. During the data ______ phase of data mining, the main data sets to be used by the data mining operation are identified and cleansed of any data impurities
a. Analysis
b. Preparation
c. Classification
d. Acquisition

14. Snow flaking means
a. Normalizing the data
b. De normalizing data
c. Stabilizing data
d. None of the above

15. Which is not the nature of data in data warehouse?
a. Subject oriented data
b. Integrated data
c. Volatile data
d. Time variant data

16. Data mart is a subset of data warehouse statement is
a. True
b. False

17. The goal of star schema design is to simply __________________
a. Logical data model
b. Physical data model
c. Conceptual data model
d. None of these

18. State whether true or false: The STAR schema used for data design is a relational model consisting of fact and dimension tables.
a. True
b. False

19. Data warehouse is about taking/collecting data from different __________ sources.
a. Harmonized
b. Identical
c. Homogeneous
d. Heterogeneous

20. The dimension that is not available in the operational systems
a. Product
b. Store
c. Customer
d. Time

21. The input to the data warehouse can come from OLTP or transactional system but not from other third party database.
a. True
b. False

22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of strategic information?
a. Integrated
b. Raw data
c. Timely
d. Credible

23. Grain is the _______ level of data stored in the warehouse.
a. Atomic
b. Summarized
c. Aggregated
d. Cube

24. RDMS is a
a. Remote DBMS
b. Relative DBMS
c. Relational DBMS
d. Reliable DBMS

25. A snowflake is which of the following types of tables
a. Fact
b. Dimension
c. Helper
d. All the above

Software Engineering Answers (Part 1 - 3)

Part 1 Part 2 Part 3

1. b 21. a 41. c

2. d 22. a 42. d

3. d 23. b 43. a

4. b 24. c 44. a

5. d 25. e 45. b

6. a 26. a 46. b

7. e 27. c 47. a

8. a 28. e 48. b

9. b 29. c 49. c

10. a 30. a 50. d

11. c 31. c 51. b

12. d 32. c 52. a

13. a 33. d 53. a

14. a 34. d 54. b

15. c 35. b 55. c

16. d 36. b 56. b

17. e 37. a 57. a

18. a 38. b 58. a

19. c 39. d 59. c

20. d 40. d 60. a

Software Engineering Questions - Part 3

41. Which of the following is a tool used to secure expert judgment?

a. Peer Review

b. Expected value technique

c. Delphi Technique

d. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

42. The scientific and technological inventions in the production of various goods and services did not result in

a. Mass production due to anticipation of demand

b. Advent of corporate form of org, which led to large scale production

c. Spectacular improvements in the transport and communication facilities

d. Decrease in competition for markets

43. There is evidence that companies that engaged in formal planning consistently performed……. Those with none or limited formal planning

a. Better than

b. Worse than

c. Similar to

d. Poorly than

44. Why should the line function and the staff function be kept separate?

a. The overlapping of these functions results in ambiguity

b. Organizations do not have any mechanism to handle such complex tasks

c. Precise division of work facilitates specialization

d. This will place the decision making power near the actual operations

45. …………….. are open ended statements of purpose which help describe an organization’s philosophy

a. Visions

b. Missions

c. Protocols

d. Declarations

46. Which one of these is not a main pillar on which the classical approach is based a. Bureaucracy

b. Psychological theory

c. Scientific management

d. Administrative theory

47. Who coined the word PODSCORB

a. Luther guelick

b. Henry fayol

c. F W taylor

d. Peter drucker

48. An organization should be ……… because it is easier to manage and it should be….. because it can quickly adapt to changing conditions

a. Complex; rigid

b. Simple; flexible

c. Functional; operational

d. Dynamic; hierarchical

49. Which of these about planning is not correct?

a. It is anticipatory in nature

b. It is system of decision

c. It increases the risk of uncertainties

d. It is focused on desired future results

50. Which of these statements about organizing in not correct?

a. It requires a formal structure of authority

b. The flow of direction of authority is well defined

c. It determines the activities to be done in order to achieve the organizational goals

d. It is future oriented

51. What does ROI stand for?

a. reverse on interest

b. return on investment

c. renege on involvement

52. A Project Proposal is a

a. high level plan

b. minor description

c. verbal contract

53. A project concept is the idea or the reason that the project is deemed necessary

a. true

b. false

54. Valuable companies frown on the use of brainstorming techniques to come up with concepts for projects

a. true

b. false

55. What does RFI generally stand for

a. realize future investments

b. release for internet

c. request for information

56. What does RFP generally stand for?

a. remember future profit

b. request for proposal

c. request for proof

57. What does RFQ generally stand for?

a. request for quotation

b. request for quality

c. reach for quality

58. Hardware projects are generally less complex than software projects due to the use of standard components

a. true

b. false

59. Which one of the below items is NOT a phase in the hardware and software life cycle?

a. planning

b. development

c. hiring

d. designing

60. Two of the main factors involved in project planning are

a. resources and scope

b. financing and resources

c. support and scope

Software Engineering Questions - Part 2

21. The first step in planning is

a. Defining the scope

b. Estimate the project

c. Assign resources

22. The WINWIN spiral model of software development is

a. Used when requirements must be defined by customer negotiation

b. Useful when a customer is able to provide requirements completely

c. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams

d. Like the spiral model without the risk assessment step

23. Requirement analysis falls under which phase of SDLC

a. Development phase

b. Definition phase

c. Support phase

d. None of the above

24. The objective of software project planning is to

a. Convince the customer that a project is feasible

b. Make use of historical project data

c. Enable a manager to make reasonable estimates of cost ans schedule

d. Determine the probable profit margin prior to bidding on a project

25. Identify the phases of SDLC

a. Requirement gathering

b. Design

c. Coding

d. Testing

e. All of the above

f. None of the above

26. The linear sequential model of software development is also known as the

a. Classical life cycle model

b. Fountain model

c. Spiral model

d. Chaos model

27. What is a Fish bone analysis?

a. Project Manager assigns the defects in a table

b. Project Manager identifies the defect and assigns a cost value to it

c. Project Manager perform a brain storming of the possible causes for a defect

28. Rapid Application Model can be applied if

a. Requirements are well defined

b. The project can be modularized

c. The project scope doesn’t change during the cycle

d. None of the above

e. All of the above

29. In scrum, the person who manages the process is called as

a. Project Manager

b. Product owner

c. Scrum master

30. What is Function point?

a. A method of estimating project completion time

b. SDLC process model

c. Method that uses LOC in a program

31. Which one of these is not a primary managerial function?

a. Staffing

b. Controlling

c. Co operating

d. Organizing

32. Which of these is not correct about the classical approach of management

a. Management is viewed as a systematic network of various functions

b. Functions, principles and skills of management are universal

c. People are not motivated by economic gains

d. Formal education and training are necessary to acquire managerial skills

33. An effective planning program incorporates the effect of

a. Neither capital nor material requirements

b. Neither external nor internal factors

c. Both capital and material requirements

d. Both external as well as internal factors

34. Which of these is correct about the planning function?

a. It improves the competitive strength of the company

b. It creates a unity of purpose for the organization

c. It prevents hasty judgments

d. It increases unproductive work

35. Which principle suggests that each person in the organization should report to only one boss? a. Scalar chain

b. Unity of command

c. Equity

d. Centralization

36. ____ is future oriented and determines an organization’s direction

a. Controlling

b. Planning

c. Directing

d. Organizing

37. _______ is based on oversimplified assumptions. Its principles are ambiguous and contradictory

a. The classical approach

b. The psychological theory

c. The scientific approach

d. The administrative approach

38. Which principle suggests that authority and responsibility should be delegated as far down the hierarchical line as possible?

a. The principle of order

b. Decentralization of power

c. Equity

d. Centralization

39. Which of these is the first of the 4 primary management functions?

a. Directing

b. Staffing

c. Controlling

d. Planning

39. Which of these statements about planning is correct?

a. It is an organized foresight only

b. It is an organized foresight as well as a corrective hindsight

c. It is neither an organized foresight nor a corrective hindsight

d. It is a corrective hindsight only

40. _____ typically consists of a classical mechanistic hierarchical structure

a. An informal organization

b. A rigid organization

c. A flexible organization

d. a formal organization

Software Engineering Questions - Part 1

1. Which of the items listed below is not one of the Software Engineering layers?

a. Process

b. Manufacturing

c. Methods

d. Tools

2. Which of the following is not considered a player in the software process?

a. Customers

b. End users

c. Project Manager

d. Sales people

3. What are the various factors that are considered in FP?

a. Inputs

b. Outputs

c. Online enquiry

d. All the above

4. An example of a direct measure

a. Reliability

b. Line of code

c. Complexity

5. The number of people required for a software project is determined

a. After an estimate of the development effort is made

b. By the size of the project budget

c. From an assessment of the technical complexity of the system

d. All the above

6. Which of the following are the advantages of using LOC as a size oriented metric?

a. LOC is easily computed

b. LOC is a language dependent measure

c. LOC is a language independent measure

d. LOC can be computed before a design is completed

7. Identify the signs that a project is in jeopardy

a. Requirements are not clear

b. Scope changes

c. Team lacks people with skills

d. a, c

e. a, b, c

8. The software plan is not a static document; it is frequently adjusted to make the project appear on track to meet all deadlines and quality targets.

a. true

b. false

9. Decomposition technique is used to

a. Define the scope of a project

b. Estimate the project effort

c. Conduct testing

10. During a sprint, the requirements can change

a. No

b. Yes

11. Effective software project management focuses on

a. people, performance, payoff, product

b. people, product, performance, process

c. people, product, process, project

d. people, process, payoff, product

12. Process indicators enable a software project manager to

a. Assess the status of an ongoing project

b. Track potential risks

c. Adjust work flow or tasks

d. All the above

13. In linear sequential model, the working model is available after every stage of SDLC

a. No

b. Yes

14. In SE, what is the difference between errors and defects?

a. Errors are identified during software development process and detects are identified after the software goes into production

b. Errors are identified by the users and defects are identified by the developers

c. Errors are reported when the software goes to production where as defects are identified when PM reports them

15. If team A has developed a software that has 200 defects and team b has developed a software that has 100 defects, which team did a better job?

a. Team a

b. Team b

c. Cannot be determined from the information provided

16. SE provides

a. Reliable s/w

b. Efficient s/w

c. Cost effective s/w

d. All the above

e. None of the above

17. Following are the examples of agile development life cycle

a. Scrum

b. RUP

c. Spiral model

d. a, c

e. a, b

f. None of the above

18. It is recommended to perform project planning

a. Before the project starts

b. After the development phase

c. After the scope is defines

19. Size oriented metrics focuses on

a. Number of inputs

b. Number of outputs

c. Line of code

d. On line enquiry

20. Which of these items should be used to select a software process framework?

a. People

b. Product

c. Project

d. All the above