Software Engineering Answers (Part 1 - 3)

Part 1 Part 2 Part 3

1. b 21. a 41. c

2. d 22. a 42. d

3. d 23. b 43. a

4. b 24. c 44. a

5. d 25. e 45. b

6. a 26. a 46. b

7. e 27. c 47. a

8. a 28. e 48. b

9. b 29. c 49. c

10. a 30. a 50. d

11. c 31. c 51. b

12. d 32. c 52. a

13. a 33. d 53. a

14. a 34. d 54. b

15. c 35. b 55. c

16. d 36. b 56. b

17. e 37. a 57. a

18. a 38. b 58. a

19. c 39. d 59. c

20. d 40. d 60. a

Software Engineering Questions - Part 3

41. Which of the following is a tool used to secure expert judgment?

a. Peer Review

b. Expected value technique

c. Delphi Technique

d. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

42. The scientific and technological inventions in the production of various goods and services did not result in

a. Mass production due to anticipation of demand

b. Advent of corporate form of org, which led to large scale production

c. Spectacular improvements in the transport and communication facilities

d. Decrease in competition for markets

43. There is evidence that companies that engaged in formal planning consistently performed……. Those with none or limited formal planning

a. Better than

b. Worse than

c. Similar to

d. Poorly than

44. Why should the line function and the staff function be kept separate?

a. The overlapping of these functions results in ambiguity

b. Organizations do not have any mechanism to handle such complex tasks

c. Precise division of work facilitates specialization

d. This will place the decision making power near the actual operations

45. …………….. are open ended statements of purpose which help describe an organization’s philosophy

a. Visions

b. Missions

c. Protocols

d. Declarations

46. Which one of these is not a main pillar on which the classical approach is based a. Bureaucracy

b. Psychological theory

c. Scientific management

d. Administrative theory

47. Who coined the word PODSCORB

a. Luther guelick

b. Henry fayol

c. F W taylor

d. Peter drucker

48. An organization should be ……… because it is easier to manage and it should be….. because it can quickly adapt to changing conditions

a. Complex; rigid

b. Simple; flexible

c. Functional; operational

d. Dynamic; hierarchical

49. Which of these about planning is not correct?

a. It is anticipatory in nature

b. It is system of decision

c. It increases the risk of uncertainties

d. It is focused on desired future results

50. Which of these statements about organizing in not correct?

a. It requires a formal structure of authority

b. The flow of direction of authority is well defined

c. It determines the activities to be done in order to achieve the organizational goals

d. It is future oriented

51. What does ROI stand for?

a. reverse on interest

b. return on investment

c. renege on involvement

52. A Project Proposal is a

a. high level plan

b. minor description

c. verbal contract

53. A project concept is the idea or the reason that the project is deemed necessary

a. true

b. false

54. Valuable companies frown on the use of brainstorming techniques to come up with concepts for projects

a. true

b. false

55. What does RFI generally stand for

a. realize future investments

b. release for internet

c. request for information

56. What does RFP generally stand for?

a. remember future profit

b. request for proposal

c. request for proof

57. What does RFQ generally stand for?

a. request for quotation

b. request for quality

c. reach for quality

58. Hardware projects are generally less complex than software projects due to the use of standard components

a. true

b. false

59. Which one of the below items is NOT a phase in the hardware and software life cycle?

a. planning

b. development

c. hiring

d. designing

60. Two of the main factors involved in project planning are

a. resources and scope

b. financing and resources

c. support and scope

Software Engineering Questions - Part 2

21. The first step in planning is

a. Defining the scope

b. Estimate the project

c. Assign resources

22. The WINWIN spiral model of software development is

a. Used when requirements must be defined by customer negotiation

b. Useful when a customer is able to provide requirements completely

c. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams

d. Like the spiral model without the risk assessment step

23. Requirement analysis falls under which phase of SDLC

a. Development phase

b. Definition phase

c. Support phase

d. None of the above

24. The objective of software project planning is to

a. Convince the customer that a project is feasible

b. Make use of historical project data

c. Enable a manager to make reasonable estimates of cost ans schedule

d. Determine the probable profit margin prior to bidding on a project

25. Identify the phases of SDLC

a. Requirement gathering

b. Design

c. Coding

d. Testing

e. All of the above

f. None of the above

26. The linear sequential model of software development is also known as the

a. Classical life cycle model

b. Fountain model

c. Spiral model

d. Chaos model

27. What is a Fish bone analysis?

a. Project Manager assigns the defects in a table

b. Project Manager identifies the defect and assigns a cost value to it

c. Project Manager perform a brain storming of the possible causes for a defect

28. Rapid Application Model can be applied if

a. Requirements are well defined

b. The project can be modularized

c. The project scope doesn’t change during the cycle

d. None of the above

e. All of the above

29. In scrum, the person who manages the process is called as

a. Project Manager

b. Product owner

c. Scrum master

30. What is Function point?

a. A method of estimating project completion time

b. SDLC process model

c. Method that uses LOC in a program

31. Which one of these is not a primary managerial function?

a. Staffing

b. Controlling

c. Co operating

d. Organizing

32. Which of these is not correct about the classical approach of management

a. Management is viewed as a systematic network of various functions

b. Functions, principles and skills of management are universal

c. People are not motivated by economic gains

d. Formal education and training are necessary to acquire managerial skills

33. An effective planning program incorporates the effect of

a. Neither capital nor material requirements

b. Neither external nor internal factors

c. Both capital and material requirements

d. Both external as well as internal factors

34. Which of these is correct about the planning function?

a. It improves the competitive strength of the company

b. It creates a unity of purpose for the organization

c. It prevents hasty judgments

d. It increases unproductive work

35. Which principle suggests that each person in the organization should report to only one boss? a. Scalar chain

b. Unity of command

c. Equity

d. Centralization

36. ____ is future oriented and determines an organization’s direction

a. Controlling

b. Planning

c. Directing

d. Organizing

37. _______ is based on oversimplified assumptions. Its principles are ambiguous and contradictory

a. The classical approach

b. The psychological theory

c. The scientific approach

d. The administrative approach

38. Which principle suggests that authority and responsibility should be delegated as far down the hierarchical line as possible?

a. The principle of order

b. Decentralization of power

c. Equity

d. Centralization

39. Which of these is the first of the 4 primary management functions?

a. Directing

b. Staffing

c. Controlling

d. Planning

39. Which of these statements about planning is correct?

a. It is an organized foresight only

b. It is an organized foresight as well as a corrective hindsight

c. It is neither an organized foresight nor a corrective hindsight

d. It is a corrective hindsight only

40. _____ typically consists of a classical mechanistic hierarchical structure

a. An informal organization

b. A rigid organization

c. A flexible organization

d. a formal organization

Software Engineering Questions - Part 1

1. Which of the items listed below is not one of the Software Engineering layers?

a. Process

b. Manufacturing

c. Methods

d. Tools

2. Which of the following is not considered a player in the software process?

a. Customers

b. End users

c. Project Manager

d. Sales people

3. What are the various factors that are considered in FP?

a. Inputs

b. Outputs

c. Online enquiry

d. All the above

4. An example of a direct measure

a. Reliability

b. Line of code

c. Complexity

5. The number of people required for a software project is determined

a. After an estimate of the development effort is made

b. By the size of the project budget

c. From an assessment of the technical complexity of the system

d. All the above

6. Which of the following are the advantages of using LOC as a size oriented metric?

a. LOC is easily computed

b. LOC is a language dependent measure

c. LOC is a language independent measure

d. LOC can be computed before a design is completed

7. Identify the signs that a project is in jeopardy

a. Requirements are not clear

b. Scope changes

c. Team lacks people with skills

d. a, c

e. a, b, c

8. The software plan is not a static document; it is frequently adjusted to make the project appear on track to meet all deadlines and quality targets.

a. true

b. false

9. Decomposition technique is used to

a. Define the scope of a project

b. Estimate the project effort

c. Conduct testing

10. During a sprint, the requirements can change

a. No

b. Yes

11. Effective software project management focuses on

a. people, performance, payoff, product

b. people, product, performance, process

c. people, product, process, project

d. people, process, payoff, product

12. Process indicators enable a software project manager to

a. Assess the status of an ongoing project

b. Track potential risks

c. Adjust work flow or tasks

d. All the above

13. In linear sequential model, the working model is available after every stage of SDLC

a. No

b. Yes

14. In SE, what is the difference between errors and defects?

a. Errors are identified during software development process and detects are identified after the software goes into production

b. Errors are identified by the users and defects are identified by the developers

c. Errors are reported when the software goes to production where as defects are identified when PM reports them

15. If team A has developed a software that has 200 defects and team b has developed a software that has 100 defects, which team did a better job?

a. Team a

b. Team b

c. Cannot be determined from the information provided

16. SE provides

a. Reliable s/w

b. Efficient s/w

c. Cost effective s/w

d. All the above

e. None of the above

17. Following are the examples of agile development life cycle

a. Scrum

b. RUP

c. Spiral model

d. a, c

e. a, b

f. None of the above

18. It is recommended to perform project planning

a. Before the project starts

b. After the development phase

c. After the scope is defines

19. Size oriented metrics focuses on

a. Number of inputs

b. Number of outputs

c. Line of code

d. On line enquiry

20. Which of these items should be used to select a software process framework?

a. People

b. Product

c. Project

d. All the above